Before I had any right to dismiss Twihards or criticize the psychologically unhealthy relationship model that Bella Swan and Edward Cullen present, I felt obliged to read the books. So I did. All four novels, one novella, and an incomplete document in portable format. The content lived down to my expectations, but I was unprepared for how poorly crafted the saga is. Contact: reasoningwithvampires@gmail.com

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16th December 2011

Question with 103 notes

Anonymous asked: With the 'neither/nor' stuff up you posted, shouldn't it be "neither Edward nor me", not "neither Edward nor I" as well? I was always under the impression that if you could replace the characters with "we", it becomes "I" and if you can replace them with "us" it becomes me. It makes more sense to say "neither of us" as opposed to "neither of we". Or have I mis-recalled this?

Meyer was correct to use “I.” You’re half-right with your logic.

It’s a subject (doer of action - I love Edward) versus object (recipient of action - Edward loves me) issue.

  • If you can change the names of two people into “we,” you have a subject so you use the pronoun “I” along with a name (in this case “Edward”). “We [didn’t] miss…” sounds correct, so you can safely use, “Neither Edward nor I…”
  • Another way to figure that out is to eliminate the second person. If Edward is taken out, you can test the sentence with “I” or “me.” Since “I [didn’t] miss…” sounds correct, but “Me [didn’t] miss…” doesn’t, then you know to use “I” with Edward to correctly form a subject.
  • You got a false positive by changing it to “neither of us” because if you change it to “neither of us,” you shift the subject to “neither” so it’s “Neither (of us) missed…” The reason “us” sounds correct is because “us” is the object of the preposition “of,” not the subject doing the action.

  1. rewritetwilight said: English is a very shitastic language…..or would it be “shit-tastic”?